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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 05:49

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If James Bond is meant to be the best secret agent in the world, how come all the bad guys in the World seem to know who he is?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why does my mother care about my sister more than me?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?